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Rolle's Theorem

Continuity and Differentiability tell us many things about a function. In particular, Rolle's Theorem tells us about the existence of horizontal tangent lines.

Rolle's Theorem

Suppose that a function f(x)f(x) is continuous on the interval [a,b][a,b] and is differentiable on the interval (a,b)(a,b). If f(a)=f(b)f(a)=f(b) then there exists a value cc in the interval (a,b)(a,b) such that f(c)=0f'(c)=0.


Note: In other words, since ff is continuous and differentiable, then in between every two points aa and bb with the same image, the function must have a maximum or a minimum.
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Example: Rolle's Theorem

Use Rolle's theorem if f(x)=2x24x+3f(x) = 2x^2-4x+3 on the interval [0,2][0,2]to show that f(x)f(x)has a horizontal tangent line for some value x=cx=c. Then, determine the value of cc which Rolle's theorem predicts.

f(x)f(x)is continuous and differentiable on x in [0,2]x\text{ in }[0,2]. Also, f(0)=f(2)=3f(0)=f(2) = 3, so all of the hypotheses of Rolle's theorem are met with a=0,b=2a=0, b=2.
So, by Rolle's theorem, there must exist some value c  in [0,2]c \ \text{ in }[0,2]such that f(c)=0f'(c) = 0.

Now, let's find the value of cc.

f(x)=4x4f'(x) = 4x-4, and f(c)=04c4=0c=1f'(c) = 0 \Rightarrow 4c-4 = 0 \Rightarrow \boxed{c=1}
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The function f(x)=1x2f(x) = \frac{1}{x^2} has no horizontal tangent lines on the interval [1,1][-1,1] , even though f(1)=f(1)f(-1)=f(1). Why doesn't this contradict Rolle's Theorem?