The Mean Value Theorem

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Why doesn't the function f(x)=xf(x) = \left|x\right|on the interval [1,1][-1,1]violate the Mean Value Theorem?
In other words, how is it that f(1)f(1)1(1)=0\dfrac{f(1)-f(-1)}{1-(-1)}=0, but there does not exist a value of ccsuch that f(c)=0f'(c) = 0?
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