tan question

Given the function f(x)=tan⁡xf(x)=\tan x. By the Mean Value Theorem, there exists a cc in the interval (1,2)(1,2) such that f′(c)f'(c) is equal to f(2)−f(1)2−1\dfrac{f(2)-f(1)}{2-1} . This statement is:
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